I was curious. For those that are of the opinion that God doesn't still perform healing miracles in modern times, that He only did it in biblical times, and the reason that miracles have ceased is because the New Testament is finished, on what basis do you come to that conclusion? For some reason, Corinthians 13:8-10 is often given by many as an explanation... "Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears." My questions are these. Where in this scripture does it even mention "miracles" ceasing? Where in this scripture is it indicating that this "completeness" has already arrived? Where in this scripture does it indicate that the "completeness" is the completion of the writing of the New Testament?